1. Which statement about vaccines is true? (Points : 2)

2. Which statement is true about fungal infections? (Points : 2)

3. What is the role of reverse transcriptase in HIV infection? (Points : 2)

4. What of the following remains a significant cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide? (Points : 2)

5. Once they have penetrated the first line of defense, which microorganisms do neutrophils actively attack, engulf, and destroy by phagocytosis? (Points : 2)

6. After sexual transmission of HIV, a person can be infected yet seronegative for _____ months. (Points : 2)

7. Deficiencies in which element can produce depression of both B- and T-cell function? (Points : 2)

8. Hypersensitivity is best defined as a(n) (Points : 2)

9. A person with type O blood is likely to have high titers of anti-___ antibodies. (Points : 2)

10. What mechanism occurs in Raynaud phenomenon that classifies it as a type III hypersensitivity reaction? (Points : 2)

11. During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, what causes bronchospasm? (Points : 2)

12. In a type II hypersensitivity reaction, when soluble antigens from infectious agents enter circulation, tissue damage is a result of (Points : 2)

13. In which primary immune deficiency is there a partial to complete absence of T-cell immunity? (Points : 2)

14. Which cytokines initiate the production of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)? (Points : 2)

15. What effect does estrogen have on lymphocytes? (Points : 2)

16. Which hormone increases the formation of glucose from amino 

17. During a stress response, increased anxiety, vigilance, and arousal is prompted by (Points : 2)

18. Which cytokine is involved in producing cachexia syndrome? (Points : 2)

19. Which of the viruses below are oncogenic DNA viruses? (Points : 2)

20. By what process does the ras gene convert from a proto-oncogene to an oncogene? (Points : 2)

21. What is the role of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), basic fibroblast growth factor (bFGF), and transforming growth factor-alpha (TGF-) in cell metastasis? (Points : 2)

22. Many cancers create a mutation of ras. What is ras? (Points : 2)

23. In chronic myeloid leukemia (CML), a piece of chromosome 9 fuses to a piece of chromosome 22. This is an example of which mutation of normal genes to oncogenes? (Points : 2)

24. Tobacco smoking is associated with cancers of all of the following except (Points : 2)

25. What percentage of children with cancer can be cured? (Points : 2)

1. At the arterial end of capillaries, fluid moves from the intravascular space into the interstitial space because the (Points : 2)

2. Physiologic pH is maintained around 7.4 because bicarbonate (HCO3) and carbonic acid (H2CO3) exist in a ratio of (Points : 2)

3. When thirst is experienced, how are osmoreceptors activated? (Points : 2)

4. Chvostek sign and Trousseau sign indicate (Points : 2)

5. Which are indications of dehydration? (Points : 2)

6. In hyperkalemia, cardiac rhythm changes are a direct result of (Points : 2)

7. Water movement between the intracellular fluid compartment and the extracellular compartment is primarily a function of (Points : 2)

8. In tuberculosis, the body walls off the bacilli in a tubercle by stimulating (Points : 2)

9. Pulmonary edema usually begins at a pulmonary capillary wedge pressure or left atrial pressure of _____ mm Hg. (Points : 2)

10. Which inflammatory mediators are produced in asthma? (Points : 2)

11. The most successful treatment for chronic asthma begins with (Points : 2)

12. Which pleural abnormality involves a site of pleural rupture that act as a one-way valve, permitting air to enter on inspiration but preventing its escape by closing during expiration? (Points : 2)

13. _____ is a fulminant form of respiratory failure characterized by acute lung inflammation and diffuse alveolocapillary injury. (Points : 2)

14. In ARDS, alveoli and respiratory bronchioles fill with fluid as a result of the (Points : 2)

15. Clinical manifestations that include unexplained weight loss, dyspnea on exertion, use of accessory muscles, and tachypnea with prolonged expiration are indicative of (Points : 2)

16. Clinical manifestations of pulmonary hypertension include (Points : 2)

17. Dyspnea is not a result of (Points : 2)

18. High altitudes may produce hypoxemia through (Points : 2)

19. Chest wall compliance in infants is _____ in adults. (Points : 2)

20. What is the primary cause of RDS of the newborn? (Points : 2)

21. An accurate description of childhood asthma is that it is a(n) (Points : 2)

22. Cystic fibrosis (CF) is caused by a(n) (Points : 2)

23. Which of the following statements about the advances in the treatment of RDS of the newborn is incorrect? (Points : 2)

24. Which of the following types of croup is most common? (Points : 2)

25. Which immunoglobulin is present in childhood asthma? (Points : 2)

1. The underlying disorder of _____ anemia is defective secretion of intrinsic factor, which is essential for the absorption of vitamin B12.(Points : 2)

2. What is the pathophysiologic process of aplastic anemia? (Points : 2)

3. The body compensates for anemia by (Points : 2)

4. A woman complains of chronic gastritis, fatigue, weight loss, and tingling in her fingers. Laboratory findings show low hemoglobin and hematocrit levels, and a high mean corpuscular volume. These findings are consistent with _____ anemia. (Points : 2)

5. In hemolytic anemia, jaundice occurs only when (Points : 2)

6. Symptoms of polycythemia vera are mainly the result of (Points : 2)

7. Which proinflammatory cytokines are responsible for the development and maintenance of DIC? (Points : 2)

8. Which of the following is a description consistent with acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)? (Points : 2)

9. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is described as a(n) (Points : 2)

10. Which of the following is a description consistent with chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)? (Points : 2)

11. Hemolytic disease of the newborn can occur if the mother is (Points : 2)

12. Polycythemia occurs in a fetus because (Points : 2)

13. The type of anemia that occurs as a result of thalassemia is (Points : 2)

14. The sickle cell trait differs from sickle cell disease in that the child with sickle cell trait (Points : 2)

15. Hemophilia B is caused by clotting factor _____ deficiency. (Points : 2)

16. What is the name of the disorder in which levels of bilirubin remain excessively high in the newborn and are deposited in the brain?(Points : 2)

17. An individual who is demonstrating elevated levels of troponin, creatine kinase (CK), and lactic dehydrogenase (LDH) is exhibiting indicators associated with: (Points : 2)

18. What alteration occurs in injured endothelial cells that contributes to atherosclerosis? (Points : 2)

19. Which of the following is manufactured by the liver and primarily contains cholesterol and protein? (Points : 2)

20. Cardiac cells can withstand ischemic conditions and still return to a viable state for how many minutes? (Points : 2)

21. When does systemic vascular resistance in infants begin to rise? (Points : 2)

22. An infant has a loud, harsh, holosystolic murmur and systolic thrill that can be detected at the left lower sternal border that radiates to the neck. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect? (Points : 2)

23. Which congenital heart defects occur in trisomy 13, trisomy 18, and Down syndrome? (Points : 2)

24. The foramen ovale is covered by a flap that creates a check valve allowing blood to flow unidirectionally from the _____ to the _____.(Points : 2)

25. Which heart defect produces a systolic ejection murmur at the right upper sternal border that transmits to the neck and left lower sternal border with an occasional ejection click? (Points : 2)

1. Aldosterone synthesis and secretion are primarily regulated by the (Points : 2)

2. A surgical individual just arrived on the unit from the postanesthesia care unit. This person’s respirations are 4 per minute and shallow. As the nurse calls for assistance, the person suddenly feels jittery and breathing quickens. Which of the following feedback loops is operating for the nurse in this situation? (Points : 2)

3. What effect does aldosterone have on fluid and electrolyte imbalances? (Points : 2)

4. What effect does hyperphosphatemia have on other electrolytes? (Points : 2)

5. Where is oxytocin synthesized? (Points : 2)

6. Which mineral is needed for the synthesis of thyroid hormones? (Points : 2)

7. The portion of the pituitary that secretes oxytocin is the _____ pituitary. (Points : 2)

8. When insulin binds its receptors on muscle cells, an increase in glucose uptake by the muscle cells is the result. This is an example of a _____ effect by a hormone. (Points : 2)

9. Which of the following hormones acts on its target cell via a second messenger? (Points : 2)

10. Target cells for parathyroid hormone (PTH) are located in the (Points : 2)

11. Which hormone is involved in the regulation of serum calcium levels? (Points : 2)

12. A person who has experienced physiologic stresses will have increased levels of which hormone? (Points : 2)

13. The first lab test that indicates type 1 diabetes is causing the development of diabetic nephropathy is (Points : 2)

14. A deficiency of which of the following may result in hypothyroidism? (Points : 2)

15. Diagnosing a thyroid carcinoma is best done with (Points : 2)

16. The effects of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) include solute (Points : 2)

17. Which of the following clinical manifestations is not common to both diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome (HHNKS)? (Points : 2)

18. The signs of thyroid crisis resulting from Graves disease include (Points : 2)

19. What causes the microvascular complications of clients with diabetes mellitus? (Points : 2)

20. A man with a closed head injury has a urine output of 6 to 8 L/day. Electrolytes are within normal limits, but his antidiuretic hormone (ADH) level is low. Although he has had no intake for 4 hours, there is no change in his polyuria. These are indications of (Points : 2)

21. Amenorrhea, galactorrhea, hirsutism, and osteopenia are each caused by a (Points : 2)

22. The most common cause of hypoparathyroidism is (Points : 2)

23. The level of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) in Graves disease is usually (Points : 2)

24. The most probable cause of low serum calcium following a thyroidectomy is (Points : 2)

25. Hyperpituitarism is generally caused by (Points : 2)

1. Considering the pathophysiology of osteoporosis, which cytokines and hormones decrease receptor activator of RANKL expression?(Points : 2)

2. Rhabdomyolysis is characterized by (Points : 2)

3. Which type of osteoporosis would a person develop after having the left leg in a cast for 8 weeks to treat a compound displaced fracture of the tibia and fibula? (Points : 2)

4. Considering the pathophysiology of osteoporosis, what are the effects of extracellular signal regulated kinases (ERKs) and receptor activator of RANKL on osteoblasts and osteoclasts? (Points : 2)

5. What is the diagnosis of a person who has tennis elbow characterized by tissue degeneration or irritation of the extensor carpi brevis tendon? (Points : 2)

6. Which statement is false about giant cell tumors? (Points : 2)

7. What pattern of bone destruction is described as not well defined and not easily separated from normal bone? (Points : 2)

8. The pain experienced in Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease is referred to as involving (Points : 2)

9. In osteomyelitis, bacteria gain access to the subperiosteal space in the metaphysis, which is considered the “path of least resistance.” What factor makes this route for bacteria the path of least resistance? (Points : 2)

10. Molecular analysis has demonstrated that osteosarcoma is associated with (Points : 2)

11. Ewing sarcoma arises from (Points : 2) 

12. Which serum laboratory test is elevated in all forms of osteogenesis imperfecta? (Points : 2)

13. The _____ is cartilage that retains the ability to form and calcify new cartilage and deposit bone until the skeleton matures. (Points : 2)

14. Osteochondrosis is caused by a(n) (Points : 2)

15. An insufficient dietary intake of vitamin _____ can lead to rickets in children. (Points : 2)

16. In latex allergies, which immunoglobulin is associated with an immediate reaction? (Points : 2)

17. Chickenpox may be followed years later by (Points : 2)

18. Cutaneous vasculitis develops from the deposit of _____ in small blood vessels as a toxic response allergen. (Points : 2)

19. Which malignancy is characterized by slow-growing lesions that usually have depressed centers and rolled borders and are frequently located on the face and neck? (Points : 2)

20. Scleroderma is more common in women and is associated with a(n) (Points : 2)

21. Thrush is a superficial infection that commonly occurs in children and is caused by (Points : 2)

22. What is the cause of chickenpox? (Points : 2)

23. Which vascular anomaly is a congenital malformation of dermal capillaries that does not fade with age? (Points : 2)

24. What is a common source of tinea corporis? (Points : 2)

25. Which contagious disease creates a primary skin lesion that is a pinpointed macule, papule, or wheal with hemorrhagic puncture site?(Points : 2)

1. Which dyskinesia involves involuntary movements of the face, trunk, and extremities? (Points : 2)

2. Uncal herniation occurs when (Points : 2)

3. Cerebral edema is an increase in the fluid content of the (Points : 2)

4. The body compensates to a rise in intracranial pressure by first displacing (Points : 2)

5. In Parkinson disease (PD), the basal ganglia influences the hypothalamic function to produce which grouping of clinical manifestations?(Points : 2)

6. The most critical aspect in diagnosing a seizure disorder and establishing its cause is (Points : 2)

7. Subarachnoid hemorrhage causes communicating hydrocephalus by obstructing (Points : 2)

8. Dilated and sluggish pupils, widening pulse pressure, and bradycardia are clinical findings evident of which stage of intracranial hypertension? (Points : 2)

9. Microinfarcts resulting in pure motor or pure sensory deficits are the result of which type of stroke? (Points : 2)

10. A right hemisphere embolic cerebrovascular accident has resulted in left-sided paralysis and reduced sensation of the left foot and leg. The vessel most likely affected by the emboli is the right _____ artery. (Points : 2)

11. In children most intracranial tumors are located (Points : 2)

12. Which clinical finding is considered a diagnostic indicator for an arteriovenous malformation (AVM)? (Points : 2)

13. Which electrolyte imbalance contributes to lithium toxicity? (Points : 2)

14. A decrease in receptor binding for which neurotransmitter is found in depressed individuals? (Points : 2)

15. Which neurotransmitter receptors are blocked by antipsychotic drugs? (Points : 2)

16. Spina bifida occulta is characterized by a(n) (Points : 2)

17. The form of cerebral palsy that results in gait disturbances and instability is (Points : 2)

18. The life-threatening problems associated with myelomeningocele include (Points : 2)

19. Intussusception causes intestinal obstruction by (Points : 2)

20. Which statement is false regarding the pathophysiology of acute pancreatitis? (Points : 2)

21. The most common manifestation of portal hypertension induced splenomegaly is (Points : 2)

22. Congenital aganglionic megacolon (Hirschsprung disease) involves inadequate motility of the colon caused by neural malformation of the _____ nervous system. (Points : 2)

23. Which disorder is characterized by an increase in the percentages in T cells and complement together with IgA and IgM antigliadin antibodies found in jejunum fluid? (Points : 2)

24. Incomplete fusion of the nasomedial or intermaxillary process during the fourth week of embryonic development causes (Points : 2)

25. Prolonged diarrhea is more severe in children than in adults because (Points : 2)